Latest ISC CSSLP First Attempt, Exam real Dumps Updated [Oct-2024]
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NEW QUESTION # 55
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places.
Select and Place:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The various SSE-CMM levels are described in the table below:
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?
- A. Regression testing
- B. Integration testing
- C. Unit testing
- D. Acceptance testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following software review processes increases the software security by removing the common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows?
- A. Software audit review
- B. Management review
- C. Peer review
- D. Code review
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A code review is a systematic examination of computer source code, which searches and resolves issues occurred in the initial development phase. It increases the software security by removing common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows. A code review is performed in the following forms: Pair programming Informal walkthrough Formal inspection Answer: C is incorrect. A peer review is an examination process in which author and one or more colleagues examine a work product, such as document, code, etc., and evaluate technical content and quality. According to the Capability Maturity Model, peer review offers a systematic engineering practice in order to detect and resolve issues occurring in the software artifacts, and stops the leakage into field operations. Answer: A is incorrect. Management review is a management study into a project's status and allocation of resources. Answer: D is incorrect. In software audit review one or more auditors, who are not members of the software development organization, perform an independent examination of a software product, software process, or a set of software processes for assessing compliance with specifications, standards, contractual agreements, or other specifications.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
- A. Continuity of Operations Plan
- B. Disaster recovery plan
- C. Business continuity plan
- D. Contingency plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and triggers for initiating planned actions. Answer A is incorrect. Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Answer B is incorrect. It deals with the plans and procedures that identify and prioritize the critical business functions that must be preserved. Answer C is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation?
- A. Access control
- B. OS fingerprinting
- C. Compliance rule
- D. OTA provisioning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Compliance rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant AnswerB is incorrect. Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. AnswerC is incorrect. An access control is a system, which enables an authority to control access to areas and resources in a given physical facility, or computer-based information system.
Access control system, within the field of physical security, is generally seen as the second layer in the security of a physical structure. It refers to all mechanisms that control visibility of screens, views, and data within Siebel Business Applications. AnswerA is incorrect. OS fingerprinting is a process in which an external host sends special traffic on the external network interface of a computer to determine the computer's operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack.
NEW QUESTION # 60
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?
- A. Scope Verification
- B. Integrated Change Control
- C. Project Management Information System
- D. Configuration Management System
Answer: D
Explanation:
The change management system is comprised of several components that guide the change request through the process. When a change request is made that will affect the project scope. The Configuration Management System evaluates the change request and documents the features and functions of the change on the project scope.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping?
- A. Code Access Security
- B. Configuration Management
- C. Access Management
- D. Security constraint
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint Answer: A is incorrect.
Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is Microsoft's solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to.
A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine who defines the security policy. Answer: D is incorrect. Access Management is used to grant authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage User Access Requests Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.
NEW QUESTION # 62
The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) provides a common modeling notation to address alignment between business and IT organizations. Which of the following principles does the SOMF concentrate on? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Disaster recovery planning
- B. SOA value proposition
- C. Business traceability
- D. Architectural components abstraction
- E. Software assets reuse
Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:
The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) concentrates on the following principles: Business traceability Architectural best-practices traceability Technological traceability SOA value proposition Software assets reuse SOA integration strategies Technological abstraction and generalization Architectural components abstraction Answer D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) does not concentrate on it.
NEW QUESTION # 63
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP security assessment? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. IS program manager
- B. Information Assurance Manager
- C. Certification agent
- D. Designated Approving Authority
- E. User representative
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager: The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process. Answer D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following are the phases of the Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Continuous Monitoring
- B. Auditing
- C. Detection
- D. Initiation
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process consists of four distinct phases: 1.Initiation
2.Security Certification 3.Security Accreditation 4.Continuous Monitoring The C&A activities can be applied to an information system at appropriate phases in the system development life cycle by selectively tailoring the various tasks and subtasks. AnswerB and C are incorrect. Auditing and detection are not phases of the Certification and Accreditation process.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Security is a state of well-being of information and infrastructures in which the possibilities of successful yet undetected theft, tampering, and/or disruption of information and services are kept low or tolerable. Which of the following are the elements of security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Integrity
- B. Availability
- C. Authenticity
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
The elements of security are as follows: 1.Confidentiality: It is the concealment of information or resources. 2.Authenticity: It is the identification and assurance of the origin of information. 3.Integrity: It refers to the trustworthiness of data or resources in terms of preventing improper and unauthorized changes. 4.Availability: It refers to the ability to use the information or resources as desired.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?
- A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
- B. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.
- C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
- D. Explanation:
Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting. - E. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Milestones are good times to do reviews, but risk management should happen frequently. Answer C is incorrect. This answer would only be correct if the project has a status meeting just once per month in the project. Answer B is incorrect. Risk management happens throughout the project as does project planning.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?
- A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)
- B. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF)
- C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)
- D. Service-oriented architecture (SOA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) has been proposed by author Michael Bell as a service-oriented modeling language for software development that employs disciplines and a holistic language to provide strategic solutions to enterprise problems. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) is a service-oriented development life cycle methodology. It offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling. The service-oriented modeling framework illustrates the major elements that identify the "what to do" aspects of a service development scheme. Answer: B is incorrect. The service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a flexible set of design principles used during the phases of systems development and integration. Answer:
D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) includes an analysis and design method that extends traditional object-oriented and component-based analysis and design methods to include concerns relevant to and supporting SOA. Answer: C is incorrect. SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management. It is a model and a methodology for developing risk-driven enterprise information security architectures and for delivering security infrastructure solutions that support critical business initiatives.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is an example of penetration testing?
- A. Implementing HIDS on a computer
- B. Implementing NIDS on a network
- C. Simulating an actual attack on a network
- D. Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source, known as a Black Hat Hacker, or Cracker. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known and/or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration testing is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. AnswerA, B, and D are incorrect. Implementing NIDS and HIDS and configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic are not examples of penetration testing.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Harry is the project manager of the MMQ Construction Project. In this project, Harry has identified a supplier who can create stained glass windows for 1,000 window units in the construction project. The supplier is an artist who works by himself, but creates windows for several companies throughout the United States. Management reviews the proposal to use this supplier and while they agree that the supplier is talented, they do not think the artist can fulfill the 1,000 window units in time for the project's deadline. Management asked Harry to find a supplier who can fulfill the completion of the windows by the needed date in the schedule. What risk response has management asked Harry to implement?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Mitigation
- C. Transference
- D. Avoidance
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of mitigation. By changing to a more reliable supplier, Harry is reducing the probability the supplier will be late. It's still possible that the vendor may not be able to deliver the stained glass windows, but the more reputable supplier reduces the probability of the lateness. Mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with threats that seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk to below an acceptable threshold. Risk mitigation involves taking early action to reduce the probability and impact of a risk occurring on the project. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions. Answer A is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee. While this question does include a contractual relationship, the risk is the lateness of the windows. Transference focuses on transferring the risk to a third party to manage the risk event. In this instance, the management of the risk is owned by a third party; the third party actually creates the risk event because of the possibility of the lateness of the windows. Answer B is incorrect. Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk. If the project manager and management changed the window-type to a standard window in the project requirements, then this would be avoidance. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. Answer D is incorrect. Acceptance accepts the risk that the windows could be late and offers no response.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following techniques is used to identify attacks originating from a botnet?
- A. Passive OS fingerprinting
- B. IFilter
- C. Recipient filtering
- D. BPF-based filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Passive OS fingerprinting can identify attacks originating from a botnet. Network Administrators can configure the firewall to take action on a botnet attack by using information obtained from passive OS fingerprinting. Passive OS fingerprinting (POSFP) allows the sensor to determine the operating system used by the hosts. The sensor examines the traffic flow between two hosts and then stores the operating system of those two hosts along with their IP addresses. In order to determine the type of operating system, the sensor analyzes TCP SYN and SYN ACK packets that are traveled on the network. The sensor computes the attack relevance rating to determine the relevancy of victim attack using the target host OS. After it, the sensor modifies the alert's risk rating or filters the alert for the attack. Passive OS fingerprinting is also used to improve the alert output by reporting some information, such as victim OS, relevancy to the victim in the alert, and source of the OS identification. Answer D is incorrect. A BPF-based filter is used to limit the number of packets seen by tcpdump; this renders the output more usable on networks with a high volume of traffic. Answer B is incorrect. Recipient filtering is used to block messages on the basis of whom they are sent to. Answer C is incorrect. IFilters are used to extract contents from files that are crawled. IFilters also remove application-specific formatting before the content of a document is indexed by the search engine.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
- B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
- C. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
- D. It can detect events scattered over the network.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an application usually employed on a single computer. It complements traditional finger- print-based and heuristic antivirus detection methods, since it does not need continuous updates to stay ahead of new malware. When a malicious code needs to modify the system or other software residing on the machine, a HIPS system will notice some of the resulting changes and prevent the action by default or notify the user for permission. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally and cannot detect events scattered over the network. Answer B is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Answer A is incorrect. Network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is a hardware/software platform that is designed to analyze, detect, and report on security related events. NIPS is designed to inspect traffic and based on its configuration or security policy, it can drop malicious traffic. NIPS is able to detect events scattered over the network and can react.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is used by attackers to record everything a person types, including usernames, passwords, and account information?
- A. Wiretapping
- B. Packet sniffing
- C. Keystroke logging
- D. Spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Keystroke logging is used by attackers to record everything a person types, including usernames, passwords, and account information. Keystroke logging is a method of logging and recording user keystrokes. It can be performed with software or hardware devices. Keystroke logging devices can record everything a person types using his keyboard, such as to measure employee's productivity on certain clerical tasks. These types of devices can also be used to get usernames, passwords, etc. Answer:
D is incorrect. Wiretapping is used to eavesdrop on voice calls. Eavesdropping is the process of listening in on private conversations. It also includes attackers listening in on network traffic. AnswerC is incorrect.
Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. AnswerA is incorrect. Packet sniffing is a process of monitoring data packets that travel across a network. The software used for packet sniffing is known as sniffers. There are many packet- sniffing programs that are available on the Internet. Some of these are unauthorized, which can be harmful for a network's security.
NEW QUESTION # 73
The Phase 3 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Validation. The goal of Phase 3 is to validate that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. System development
- B. Perform certification evaluation of the integrated system
- C. Certification and accreditation decision
- D. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
- E. Develop recommendation to the DAA
Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:
The Phase 3 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Validation. The goal of Phase 3 is to validate that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Continue to review and refine the SSAA Perform certification evaluation of the integrated system Develop recommendation to the DAA Certification and accreditation decision Answer D is incorrect. System development is a Phase 2 activity.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network?
- A. Authentication
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Integrity
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The confidentiality service of a cryptographic system ensures that information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
- A. Continuity of Operations Plan
- B. Disaster recovery plan
- C. Business continuity plan
- D. Contingency plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong.
Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and triggers for initiating planned actions. AnswerA is incorrect. Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. AnswerB is incorrect. It deals with the plans and procedures that identify and prioritize the critical business functions that must be preserved. AnswerC is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.
NEW QUESTION # 76
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
- A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Explanation:
A life cycle model helps to provide an insight into the development process and emphasizes on the relationships among the different activities in this process. This model describes a structured approach to the development and adjustment process involved in producing and maintaining systems. The life cycle model addresses specifications, design, requirements, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
NEW QUESTION # 77
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