Practice 156-215.81 Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert [Q20-Q42]

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Practice 156-215.81 Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert ITPassLeader

Free CheckPoint 156-215.81 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps


The Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 certification exam tests the candidate's knowledge of the core security concepts such as Network Address Translation (NAT), VPN, and Firewall policies. 156-215.81 exam also covers the installation and configuration of Check Point Security Gateway, managing user access, and implementing threat prevention technologies.

 

NEW QUESTION # 20
You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

  • A. VPN certificate properties of the John's gateway.
  • B. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.
  • C. Shared secret properties of John's password.
  • D. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 21
You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.
How can you fix this?

  • A. Right click Accept in the rule, select "More", and then check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"
  • B. On the Security Management Server object, check the box "Identity Logging"
  • C. On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"
  • D. In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 22
Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

  • A. The Gaia operating system only.
  • B. The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.
  • C. Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.
  • D. The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for licensed Check Point products for the Gaia operating system and the Gaia operating system itself. CPUSE is an advanced tool that automates software updates and upgrades on Gaia platforms. It can download and install packages such as hotfixes, Jumbo Hotfix Accumulators, minor versions, major versions, and OS updates.References: [CPUSE - Gaia Software Updates (including Gaia Software Updates Agent)], [Check Point R81]


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R81 SmartConsole?

  • A. Gateway and Servers
  • B. Manage and Command Line
  • C. Logs and Monitor
  • D. Security Policies

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 24
Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

  • A. Application Control rule
  • B. IPS bypass rule
  • C. Manual NAT rule
  • D. Firewall rule

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/Management/Workaround-for-manual-NAT-when-security-zones-are-used/td-p/9915


NEW QUESTION # 25
In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

  • A. Gateways and Servers
  • B. Manage and Settings
  • C. Logs and Monitor
  • D. Security Policies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Permissions and Administrators are defined on the Manage and Settings tab in SmartConsole3. This tab allows you to create and manage administrator accounts, roles, permissions, and authentication methods for accessing SmartConsole and other Check Point management interfaces. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 26
Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

  • A. Management container
  • B. Security Gateway
  • C. Security Gateway container
  • D. Management server

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Service blades must be attached to a Security Gateway. A Security Gateway is a device that enforces security policies on traffic that passes through it. A service blade is a software module that provides a specific security function, such as firewall, VPN, IPS, etc. A Security Gateway can have one or more service blades attached to it, depending on the license and hardware capabilities. The other options are incorrect. A management container is a virtualized environment that hosts a Security Management Server or a Log Server. A management server is a device that manages security policies and distributes them to Security Gateways. A Security Gateway container is not a valid term in Check Point terminology. References: [Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 CloudGuard Administration Guide]


NEW QUESTION # 27
Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

  • A. 80, 256
  • B. 259, 900
  • C. 8080, 529
  • D. 256, 257

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default are 259 and 900. Client Authentication is a method that allows users to authenticate with the Security Gateway before they are allowed access to protected resources. The Client Authentication daemon (fwauthd) runs on the Security Gateway and listens for authentication requests on TCP ports 259 and 900 . References: [Check Point R81 Remote Access VPN Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide]


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

  • A. SmartEvent
  • B. Multi-domain management server
  • C. Log server
  • D. All-in-one (stand-alone)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Multi-domain management server is a valid deployment option for R81, not R80. R80 supports multi-domain security management, which is a centralized management solution for large-scale, distributed environments with many different domain networks1. References: Multi-Domain Security Management Administration Guide R80


NEW QUESTION # 29
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

  • A. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
  • B. SmartConsole and Security Management Server
  • C. SmartConsole
  • D. Security Management Server

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are the components that can store logs in the Check Point Security Management Architecture. The Security Management Server stores logs in a database and can also forward them to external log servers. The Security Gateway can store logs locally in a buffer or a local log file, and can also send them to the Security Management Server or a log server.
References: Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81, p. 11-12


NEW QUESTION # 30
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

  • A. Anti-Virus
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Anti-spam and Email Security
  • D. Application Control

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_ThreatPrevention_AdminGuide/Topics-TPG/The_Check_Point_ThreatCloud.htm


NEW QUESTION # 31
Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule mean?

  • A. This rule is managed by check point's SOC
  • B. I have changed this rule
  • C. This rule can't be changed as it's an implied rule
  • D. Someone else has changed this rule

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A because a pencil icon in a rule means that you have changed this rule3. The pencil icon indicates that the rule has been modified but not published yet. You can hover over the pencil icon to see who made the change and when3. The other options are not related to the pencil icon. References: Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)


NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

  • A. Use 1 cluster + 1st sync
  • B. Use 1 dedicated sync interface
  • C. Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync
  • D. Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment is to use one dedicated sync interface56. This method provides optimal performance and reliability for synchronization traffic. Using multiple sync interfaces is not recommended as it increases CPU load and does not provide 100% sync redundancy5. Using multiple clusters is not a sync method, but a cluster topology. References: Sync Redundancy in ClusterXL, Best Practice for HA sync interface


NEW QUESTION # 33
The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

  • A. Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).
  • B. When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.
  • C. Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.
  • D. When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 34
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

  • A. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email
  • B. Log, Alert, None
  • C. Drop Packet, Alert, None
  • D. Log, Allow Packets, Email

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure Spoof Tracking - select the tracking action that is done when spoofed packets are detected:
Log - Create a log entry (default)
Alert - Show an alert
None - Do not log or alert
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/Topics-SECMG/Preventing-IP-Spoofing.htm


NEW QUESTION # 35
Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

  • A. Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer
  • B. Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules
  • C. Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules
  • D. Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 36
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

  • A. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
  • B. Stored on the Security Management Server.
  • C. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
  • D. Sent to the Security Administrator.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is stored on the Certificate Revocation List (CRL)1, p. 47. The CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked before their expiration date4. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Free Check Point CCSA Sample Questions and Study Guide


NEW QUESTION # 37
When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

  • A. The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.
  • B. First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile
  • C. First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.
  • D. First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
When a gateway requires user information for authentication, it queries servers for user information in the following order: first the internal user database, then the generic external user profile, and finally LDAP servers in order of priority. The internal user database is a local database that stores user information on the Security Gateway or Security Management Server. The generic external user profile is a predefined profile that allows users to authenticate with any external server that supports RADIUS or TACACS protocols. LDAP servers are external servers that use the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol to store and retrieve user information. The gateway queries LDAP servers according to the priority that is defined in the LDAP Account Unit object properties.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

  • A. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.
  • B. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
  • C. When you upgrade to R81 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.
  • D. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's?

  • A. Typing API commands using the "mgmt_cli" command
  • B. Typing API commands using Gaia's secure shell (clash)19+
  • C. Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services
  • D. Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D because sending API commands over an http connection using web-services is not one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's3. The Management API's support HTTPS protocol only, not HTTP3. The other methods are valid ways to communicate using the Management API's3.
References: Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)


NEW QUESTION # 40
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

  • A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.
  • B. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
  • C. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.
  • D. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?

  • A. Accounting
  • B. Data
  • C. Advanced
  • D. Logs

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Accounting is the option in tracking that allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection.
Accounting tracks the number of bytes and packets for each connection and generates reports based on the collected data. References: Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R81.20 Course Overview, page 14.


NEW QUESTION # 42
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