[Nov 27, 2024] 312-38 PDF Questions and Testing Engine With 359 Questions
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The EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) exam is designed to test a candidate's knowledge and skills in network security and defense. It is a vendor-neutral certification that is recognized globally and is highly sought after by organizations looking to hire professionals who can protect their networks from cyber threats. 312-38 exam covers topics such as network security protocols, perimeter defense, intrusion detection and prevention, and incident response and recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 178
Which of the following firewalls are used to monitor the status of active connections, and configure the network packets to pass through the firewall? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
- A. The circuit gateway
- B. Proxy server
- C. Dynamic packet filtering
- D. Farm owner
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 179
Identity the correct order for a successful black hat operation.
- A. Reconnaissance, Scanning, Gaining Access, Covering Tracks, and Maintaining Access
- B. Reconnaissance. Scanning, Gaining Access. Maintaining Access, and Covering Tracks
- C. Reconnaissance. Gaming Access, Scanning. Maintaining Access, and Covering Tracks
- D. Scanning, Reconnaissance, Gaining Access. Maintaining Access and Covering Tracks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 180
John wants to implement a firewall service that works at the session layer of the OSI model. The firewall must also have the ability to hide the private network information. Which type of firewall service is John thinking of implementing?
- A. Stateful Multilayer Inspection
- B. Packet Filtering
- C. Circuit level gateway
- D. Application level gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
A circuit level gateway operates at the session layer of the OSI model, which is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between network nodes. It is designed to provide security by verifying the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) handshaking between packets to ensure that the session is legitimate and by monitoring the state of the connection. Unlike application-level gateways, circuit level gateways do not inspect the packet's contents but rather the header information to ensure that the traffic conforms to the established rules. This type of firewall is particularly effective at hiding the private network information because it only allows traffic from established sessions and does not expose the details of the network's internal structure.
NEW QUESTION # 181
Adam, a malicious hacker, is sniffing an unprotected Wi-FI network located in a local store with Wireshark to capture hotmail e-mail traffic. He knows that lots of people are using their laptops for browsing the Web in the store. Adam wants to sniff their e-mail messages traversing the unprotected Wi-Fi network. Which of the following Wireshark filters will Adam configure to display only the packets with hotmail email messages?
- A. (http = "login.pass.com") && (http contains "SMTP")
- B. (http contains "hotmail") && (http contains "Reply-To")
- C. (http = "login.passport.com") && (http contains "POP3")
- D. (http contains "email") && (http contains "hotmail")
Answer: B
Explanation:
Adam will use (http contains "hotmail") && (http contains "Reply-To") filter to display only the packets with hotmail email messages. Each Hotmail message contains the tag Reply-To: and "xxxx-xxx- xxx.xxxx.hotmail.com" in the received tag. Wireshark is a free packet sniffer computer application. It is used for network troubleshooting, analysis, software and communications protocol development, and education.
Wireshark is very similar to tcpdump, but it has a graphical front-end, and many more information sorting and filtering options. It allows the user to see all traffic being passed over the network (usually an Ethernet network but support is being added for others) by putting the network interface into promiscuous mode. Wireshark uses pcap to capture packets, so it can only capture the packets on the networks supported by pcap. It has the following features: Data can be captured "from the wire" from a live network connection or read from a file that records the already-captured packets. Live data can be read from a number of types of network, including Ethernet, IEEE 802.11, PPP, and loopback. Captured network data can be browsed via a GUI, or via the terminal (command line) version of the utility, tshark. Captured files can be programmatically edited or converted via command-line switches to the "editcap" program. Data display can be refined using a display filter. Plugins can be created for dissecting new protocols.
Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.
NEW QUESTION # 182
John is the Vice-President of a BPO. He wants to implement a policy allowing employees to use and manage devices purchased by the organization but restrict the use of the device for business use only. Which among the following policies does John want to implement?
- A. CYOD policy
- B. BYOD policy
- C. COPE policy
- D. COBO policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
John wants to implement a policy that allows employees to use and manage devices purchased by the organization but restricts the use of the device for business use only. This is known as a COBO (Company Owned, Business Only) policy. Under a COBO policy, the company provides the devices to the employees and maintains control over them, ensuring that they are used solely for business purposes123.
References: The concept of COBO is well-documented in enterprise mobility and device management literature, where it is described as a policy where the organization owns the devices and restricts their use to business activities only123. This approach is in contrast to BYOD (Bring Your Own Device), CYOD (Choose Your Own Device), and COPE (Company Owned, Personally Enabled) policies, which offer varying degrees of personal use456789.
NEW QUESTION # 183
Which of the following is not part of the recommended first response steps for network defenders?
- A. Do not change the state of the suspected device
- B. Disable virus protection
- C. Restrict yourself from doing the investigation
- D. Extract relevant data from the suspected devices as early as possible
Answer: B
Explanation:
The recommended first response steps for network defenders typically include preserving the state of the suspected devices and extracting relevant data as early as possible. Disabling virus protection is not part of the recommended first response steps because it could compromise the system's security further and potentially destroy evidence. The primary goal in the initial response is to maintain the integrity of the system and the evidence it contains.
References: This approach aligns with best practices for incident response, which emphasize the importance of not altering the state of a system during the initial investigation to avoid evidence tampering or loss12.
NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following OSI layers establishes, manages, and terminates the connections between the local and remote applications?
- A. Network layer
- B. Application layer
- C. Data Link layer
- D. Session layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The session layer of the OSI/RM controls the dialogues (connections) between computers. It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex, or simplex operation, and establishes checkpointing, adjournment, termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session checkpointing and recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The Session Layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application environments that use remote procedure calls. Answer option C is incorrect. The Application Layer of TCP/IP model refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication. Examples of application layer protocols include the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Data coded according to application layer protocols are then encapsulated into one or more transport layer protocols, which in turn use lower layer protocols to affect actual data transfer. Answer option A is incorrect. The Data Link Layer is Layer 2 of the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking. It corresponds to or is part of the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model. The Data Link Layer is the protocol layer which transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network or between nodes on the same local area network segment. The Data Link Layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and might provide the means to detect and possibly correct errors that may occur in the Physical Layer. Examples of data link protocols are Ethernet for local area networks (multi-node), the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), HDLC, and ADCCP for point-to-point (dual-node) connections. Answer option B is incorrect. The network layer controls the operation of subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take, based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. Routers work on the Network layer of the OSI stack.
NEW QUESTION # 185
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.
Answer:
Explanation:
quantitative
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis is a process to assess the probability of achieving particular project objectives, to quantify the effect of risks on the whole project objective, and to prioritize the risks based on the impact to the overall project risk. The quantitative risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value. It also presents a quantitative approach to build decisions in the presence of uncertainty. The inputs for quantitative risk analysis are as follows: Organizational process assets Project scope statement Risk management plan Risk register Project management plan
NEW QUESTION # 186
Which of the following is a data destruction technique that protects the sensitivity of information against a laboratory attack where an unauthorized individual uses signal processing recovery tools in a laboratory environment to recover the information?
- A. Disposal
- B. Purging
- C. Clearing
- D. Destroying
Answer: B
Explanation:
Purging is a data destruction technique designed to protect the sensitivity of information against laboratory attacks. In such attacks, unauthorized individuals may use advanced signal processing recovery tools to recover previously stored information. Purging involves removing the stored data in a way that it cannot be reconstructed by any means, including laboratory techniques. This process often includes degaussing, which demagnetizes the magnetic field of storage media, thereby making data recovery virtually impossible.
References: The information provided aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course's objectives regarding data destruction and protection against laboratory attacks. For more detailed information, please refer to the official CND study guide and documents.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following are the common security problems involved in communications and email?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Eavesdropping
- B. Message digest
- C. Message repudiation
- D. Message replay
- E. False message
- F. Identity theft
- G. Message modification
Answer: A,C,D,E,F,G
Explanation:
Following are the common security problems involved in communications and email:
Eavesdropping: It is the act of secretly listening to private information through telephone lines, e-
mail, instant messaging, and any other method of communication considered private.
Identity theft: It is the act of obtaining someone's username and password to access his/her email
servers for reading email and sending false email messages. These credentials can be obtained
by eavesdropping on SMTP, POP, IMAP, or Webmail connections.
Message modification: The person who has system administrator permission on any of the SMTP
servers can visit anyone's message and can delete or change the message before it continues on
to its destination. The recipient has no way of telling that the email message has been altered.
False message: It the act of constructing messages that appear to be sent by someone else.
Message replay: In a message replay, messages are modified, saved, and re-sent later.
Message repudiation: In message repudiation, normal email messages can be forged. There is no
way for the receiver to prove that someone had sent him/her a particular message. This means
that even if someone has sent a message, he/she can successfully deny it.
Answer option B is incorrect. A message digest is a number that is created algorithmically from a
file and represents that file uniquely.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following protocols is a method for implementing virtual private networks?
- A. SSL
- B. SNMP
- C. TLS
- D. PPTP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following protocols is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems?
- A. EGP
- B. IGMP
- C. ICMP
- D. OSPF
Answer: A
Explanation:
EGP stands for Exterior Gateway Protocol. It is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems. This protocol depends upon periodic polling with proper acknowledgements to confirm that network connections are up and running, and to request for routing updates.
Each router requests its neighbor at an interval of 120 to 480 seconds, for sending the routing table updates.
The neighbor host then responds by sending its routing table. EGP-2 is the latest version of EGP.
Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a maintenance protocol that allows routers and host computers to swap basic control information when data is sent from one computer to another.
It is generally considered a part of the IP layer. It allows the computers on a network to share error and status information. An ICMP message, which is encapsulated within an IP datagram, is very useful to troubleshoot the network connectivity and can be routed throughout the Internet.
Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. IGMP is vulnerable to network attacks.
Answer option D is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that is used in large networks. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) designates OSPF as one of the Interior Gateway Protocols.
A host uses OSPF to obtain a change in the routing table and to immediately multicast updated information to all the other hosts in the network.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of the following is an example of a network providing DQDB access methods?
- A. IEEE 802.2
- B. IEEE 802.3
- C. IEEE 802.4
- D. IEEE 802.6
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 191
Henry needs to design a backup strategy for the organization with no service level downtime. Which backup method will he select?
- A. Normal backup
- B. Warm backup
- C. Cold backup
- D. Hot backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hot backup, also known as an online backup or dynamic backup, is the process of backing up data while the system continues to be in operation. This means that there is no need for system downtime or interruption in services while the backup is taking place. It is mostly used in systems where operations are critical and cannot afford any downtime, such as databases and servers that must be available 24/7. The hot backup method allows for data to be backed up at regular intervals with minimal impact on the system's performance, ensuring that the organization can maintain continuous service levels.
References: The concept of hot backup is aligned with the ECCouncil's Network Defender (CND) objectives and is supported by industry best practices as detailed in sources like MiniTool1 and NinjaOne2, which discuss the advantages of hot backups in maintaining uninterrupted service and business continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 192
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.
Answer:
Explanation:
quantitative
NEW QUESTION # 193
John has been working a* a network administrator at an IT company. He wants to prevent misuse of accounts by unauthorized users. He wants to ensure that no accounts have empty passwords. Which of the following commands does John use to list all the accounts with an empty password?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 194
Adam works as a Professional Penetration Tester. A project has been assigned to him to test the vulnerabilities of the CISCO Router of Umbrella Inc. Adam finds out that HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability exists in the router. By applying different password cracking tools, Adam gains access to the router. He analyzes the router config file and notices the following lines:
logging buffered errors
logging history critical
logging trap warnings
logging 10.0.1.103
By analyzing the above lines, Adam concludes that this router is logging at log level 4 to the syslog server
10.0.1.103. He decides to change the log level from 4 to 0.
Which of the following is the most likely reason of changing the log level?
- A. By changing the log level, Adam can easily perform a SQL injection attack.
- B. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the logging of only emergencies. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.
- C. Changing the log level grants access to the router as an Administrator.
- D. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the termination of logging. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Router Log Level directive is used by the sys log server to specify the level of severity of the log. This directive is used to control the types of errors that are sent to the error log by constraining the severity level.
Eight different levels are present in the Log Level directive, which are shown below in order of their descending significance:
Number Level Description
0emergEmergencies - system is unusable
1alertAction must be taken immediately
2critCritical Conditions
3errorError conditions
4warnWarning conditions
5notice Normal but significant condition
6infoInformational
7debug Debug-level messages
Note: When a certain level is specified, the messages from all other levels of higher significance will also be reported. For example, when Log Level crit is specified, then messages with log levels of alert and emerg will also be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following provide an "always on" Internet access service when connecting to an ISP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
- A. DSL
- B. Analog modem
- C. Digital modem
- D. Cable modem
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
DSL and Cable modems are used in remote-access WAN technology for connecting to the Internet. Both provide an "always on" Internet access service.
Answer options C and A are incorrect. Analog and Digital modems are not always in 'ON' mode when connecting to an ISP. Analog modems transmit analog voice signals, while Digital modems transmit digital signals over a link.
NEW QUESTION # 196
During a security awareness program, management was explaining the various reasons which create threats to network security. Which could be a possible threat to network security?
- A. Implementing VPN
- B. Configuring automatic OS updates
- C. Patch management
- D. Having a web server in the internal network
Answer: D
Explanation:
Having a web server within the internal network can pose a threat to network security because it increases the attack surface that an adversary can exploit. If not properly secured, internal web servers can be vulnerable to various attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and others. These vulnerabilities can lead to unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that web servers are securely configured and isolated from the internal network to minimize the risk.
References: The EC-Council's Certified Network Defender (CND) program discusses the importance of understanding the attack surface and the potential threats associated with having critical services like web servers within the internal network. The program emphasizes the need for strategic placement of network resources and the implementation of robust security measures to protect against internal and external threats1
NEW QUESTION # 197
Which of the following provides the target for designing DR and BC solutions?
- A. RPO
- B. RCO
- C. RTO
- D. RGO
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is Recovery Time Objective (RTO). RTO is a critical metric in disaster recovery (DR) and business continuity (BC) planning. It defines the target time within which a business process must be restored after a disaster to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity. It is essentially the maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs. An RTO is set by business continuity planners to ensure that the DR and BC solutions are designed to meet the specific time constraints of the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Which of the following is an exterior gateway protocol that communicates using a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and sends the updated router table information?
- A. IGMP
- B. BGP
- C. IRDP
- D. OSPF
Answer: B
Explanation:
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol. It communicates using a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and sends the updated router table information. The best path is chosen on the basis of cost metric associated with the route. It is used between gateway hosts in a network.
Answer option C is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that is used in large networks. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) designates OSPF as one of the Interior Gateway Protocols.
A host uses OSPF to obtain a change in the routing table and to immediately multicast updated information to all the other hosts in the network.
Answer option A is incorrect. IGMP stands for Internet Group Management Protocol. IGMP is a communication protocol that is used to manage the membership of Internet protocol multicast groups. It is an integral part of the IP multicast specification. Although it does not actually act as a transport protocol, it operates above the network layer. It is analogous to ICMP for unicast connections. It is susceptible to some attacks, so firewalls commonly allow the user to disable it if not needed.
Answer option B is incorrect. ICMP Router Discovery Protocol (IRDP) uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) router advertisements and router solicitation messages to allow a host to discover the addresses of operational routers on the subnet. It basically consists of 2 message types used for discovering local routers.
The message type 9 is sent periodically or on request (using a message of type 10) to the local subnet from the local routers to propagate themselves. On boot, the client may send an ICMP message of type 10 to ask for local routers. When a client receives a message type 9, they add the router to their local routing-table.
NEW QUESTION # 199
Which of the following technologies can be used to leverage zero-trust model security?
- A. Software defined perimeter (SDP)
- B. Software defined networking (SDN)
- C. Network visualization (NV)
- D. Network function visualization (NFV)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which of the following is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and systems?
- A. IEEE
- B. ICANN
- C. CCITT
- D. NIST
Answer: C
Explanation:
CCITT is the primary international body for fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications equipment and systems. It is now known as the ITU-T (for Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the International Telecommunications Union). The ITU-T mission is to ensure the efficient and timely production of standards covering all fields of telecommunications on a worldwide basis, as well as defining tariff and accounting principles for international telecommunication services.
Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management.
Answer option B is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) is a society of technical professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied sciences. IEEE develops communications and network standards, among other activities. The organization publishes number of journals, has many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.
Answer option C is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non- regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is as follows:
To promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.
NIST had an operating budget for fiscal year 2007 (October 1, 2006-September 30, 2007) of about $843.3 million. NIST's 2009 budget was $992 million, but it also received $610 million as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. NIST employs about 2,900 scientists, engineers, technicians, and support and administrative personnel. About 1,800 NIST associates (guest researchers and engineers from American companies and foreign nations) complement the staff. In addition, NIST partners with 1,400 manufacturing specialists and staff at nearly 350 affiliated centers around the country.
NEW QUESTION # 201
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The EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification exam is a valuable credential for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in cybersecurity. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification demonstrates the candidate's expertise in network security and defense, which is highly valued by employers. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification also provides the candidate with access to a global network of cybersecurity professionals, which can be useful for networking and career advancement.
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